It is very important that we put facts before anything else on our political podcast. Both Justin and I have said before that, if either of us gets it wrong and it's called to our attention, we will gladly correct our mistake.
In Episode 5 of the pod, A Lot Less Wokeness, Please, I was discussing inequalities that may or may not be the result of inequities, and I brought up the topic of women's soccer. It was my understanding at that point, probably influenced from a right-wing commentator, that the audience for women's soccer was significantly less than that of men's soccer; and so the disparity that exists in salaries was likely not due to any inequity but rather the fact that less money is being generated for the women's league. This argument was presented in the context of how many on the woke left will seek to attribute the disparity in salary to the sex of the players exclusively rather than any other various factors that may be involved.
I received a call from a good friend of mine who expressed in the kindest way possible that I was "full of sh-t" in regard to this claim. According to the articles that he sent me, it appears as though my claim was indeed false. I own this and apologize for my mistake.
The more important question is, assuming the following pieces are accurate, why do YOU think there is a disparity that generally exists between men and women's salaries in nearly every professional sport?
Thanks for accepting my clarification. Here are links to three articles that cite the real statistics: